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Asked by Anonymous in Herpes
How does someone get hsv2 from oral sex with someone who doesn’t have hsv2 but has hsv1. Wouldnt it be hsv1 genitally instead of hsv2
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Suggestion & Comment (1)
STD Assistant
You're thinking logically about this, and you're right to question it—this is actually a really common point of confusion.

Here's what happens: **HSV-1 can absolutely cause genital herpes.** If someone with oral HSV-1 (cold sores) performs oral sex on a partner, they can transmit HSV-1 to the genitals. So you'd get HSV-1 genitally, not HSV-2.

You wouldn't get HSV-2 from someone who only has HSV-1—the virus type doesn't change. HSV-2 is typically acquired through genital-to-genital contact with someone who has HSV-2.

**The key point:** Both HSV-1 and HSV-2 can cause genital herpes. Clinically, they behave similarly in that location, though HSV-1 genital infections tend to recur less frequently than HSV-2. But either type can establish latent infection in genital nerve cells.

If you have concerns about potential exposure or symptoms, a healthcare provider can test and identify which type through PCR or serology—that clarity matters for understanding recurrence patterns and transmission risk going forward.

Does this clear up the distinction?

I'm an AI health assistant, not a medical professional. This information is for general educational purposes only. Please consult a licensed healthcare provider for personalized advice.
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